Math, asked by VarunTyagi09, 5 months ago

A die is thrown 6 times. If “getting an odd number" is a "success", what is the probability
of getting at least one success.

Answers

Answered by student11110
0

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

it is a perfect answer

Answered by XxitsmrseenuxX
0

Answer:

\large\underline{\sf{Solution-}}

Given that,

A die is rolled 8 times and getting an even number is considered as success denoted by event A.

So, number of independent trials, n = 8.

Let assume that

p denotes the probability of success i.e getting an even number.

and

q denotes the failure i.e. not getting an even number.

The possible outcomes of even number when a die is rolled is { 2, 4, 6 }

So,

\rm :\longmapsto\:p = \dfrac{3}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{2}

and

\rm :\longmapsto\:q = 1 - p = 1 - \dfrac{1}{2}  = \dfrac{1}{2}

Now, We know In Binomial Distribution,

In a random experiment, consisting of n number of independent trials, the probability of getting r successes is

\red{\rm :\longmapsto\:\boxed{ \tt{ \: P(r) \:  =  \: ^nC_r \:  {p}^{r} \:  {q}^{n - r}  \: }}}

a) The probability that event A is success 5 times.

\red{\rm :\longmapsto\:P(5)}

\rm \:  =  \: ^8C_5 \:  {\bigg[\dfrac{1}{2} \bigg]}^{5}  {\bigg[\dfrac{1}{2} \bigg]}^{3}

\rm \:  =  \: \dfrac{8 \times 7 \times 6}{3 \times 2 \times 1}  \times \dfrac{1}{32}  \times \dfrac{1}{8}

\rm \:  =  \: \dfrac{7}{32}

b) The probability of not getting A at all.

\red{\rm :\longmapsto\:P(0)}

\rm \:  =  \: ^8C_0 \:  {\bigg[\dfrac{1}{2} \bigg]}^{8}  {\bigg[\dfrac{1}{2} \bigg]}^{0}

\rm \:  =  \: \dfrac{1}{256}

c) The probability of getting A at least one time.

\red{\rm :\longmapsto\: \displaystyle \sum^8_{r = 1} \: P(r)}

\rm \:  =  \: P(1) + P(2) + P(3) +  -  -  + P(8)

\rm \:  =  \: 1 - P(0)

\rm \:  =  \: 1 - \dfrac{1}{256}

\rm \:  =  \: \dfrac{256 - 1}{256}

\rm \:  =  \: \dfrac{255}{256}

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Additional Information :-

1. Mean of Binomial Distribution = np

2. Variance of Binomial Distribution = npq

3. Mean > Variance

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