Question

A force F1 acts on a particle so as to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. the force F1 is replaced by F2 which is decelerate it to rest. then is it possible that F1 and F2 equal?​

Answer 1

Explanation:

A force F1 acts on a particle so as to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. the force F1 is replaced by F2 which is decelerate it to rest. then is it possible that F1 and F2 equal?

Answer 2

Answer:

F1 and F2 will be equal only if the time taken to v and stpped from v is same