Math, asked by uday24094, 2 months ago

A function is analytic if it is function of z alone​

Answers

Answered by XxSonaxX
104

Step-by-step explanation:

⭐Always split the function into real and imaginary parts, identify these as functions u(x, y) and v(x, y) respectively.

Here u = x, v = 0, but 1 = 0. Re(z) is nowhere analytic. ... The Cauchy–Riemann equations are only satisfied at the origin, so f is only differentiable at z = 0. However, it is not analytic there because there is no small region containing the origin within which f is differentiable.

Answered by suranjankapil
1

Answer:

A function f(z) is analytic if it has a complex derivative f (z). In general, the rules for computing derivatives will be familiar to you from single variable calculus. However, a much richer set of conclusions can be drawn about a complex analytic function than is generally true about real differentiable functions.

Step-by-step explanation:

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