Biology, asked by imranahmedlaskar2004, 6 months ago

A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the percentage probability that their daughter will be haemophilic?

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Answered by ayushkumargautam852
5

Answer:

Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder that has its been on the X chromosome. If a man is hemophilic and the female is normal homozygous female then none of their sons will be haemophilic because they will receive one of their X chromosomes from the mother and as the mother is normal, the genes will not be transmitted.

So there are zero per cent chances of being hemophilic.

So, the correct option is '0 %'

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