(a) Let f be a one-one mapping of A onto B, g be a one-one mapping of B onto C. Then
show that gof is also invertible and
(gof)-1 = f-1 o g -1
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Given f:A→B is bijective
⇒f is one-one and onto.
Also, given g:B→C is bijective
⇒g is one-one and onto.
Now, we will check whether gof is bijective
Let x,y∈A such that
(gof)(x)=(gof)(y)
⇒g(f(x))=g(f(y))
⇒f(x)=f(y) (Since, g is one-one, so g(x)=g(y)⇒x=y
⇒x=y (∵f is one-one)
Hence, gof is one-one.
Now, for surjective, let z∈C be an arbitrary element
Since, g is onto, so for z∈C, there exists an element r∈B such that g(r)=z
Also since, f is one so for every x∈A, there is an element r∈B such that f(x)=r
⇒g(f(x))=g(r)=z
⇒(gof)(x)=z
Hence, for z∈C, there is an element x∈A .
Hence, gof is onto.
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