Math, asked by grovermehak404, 23 hours ago

(a)
lim
sin x
is equal to
0X (1 + cos x)
2.
1​

Answers

Answered by praveshkumarbhati
0

Step-by-step explanation:

The Taylor Expansions for sine and cosine are:

sin

(

u

)

=

u

u

3

3

!

+

O

(

u

5

)

and

cos

(

u

)

=

1

u

2

2

!

+

O

(

u

4

)

Plugging these into the limit yields:

lim

x

0

x

2

x

6

3

!

+

O

(

x

10

)

1

(

1

x

2

2

!

+

O

(

x

4

)

)

=

lim

x

0

x

2

x

6

3

!

+

O

(

x

10

)

x

2

2

!

+

O

(

x

4

)

Divide top and bottom by

x

2

:

=

lim

x

0

1

+

O

(

x

4

)

1

2

!

+

O

(

x

2

)

=

2

Answer link

Answered by jiosuhail66
0

Answer:

Use the fundamental trigonometric limits and algebra.

Explanation:

The fundamental trigonometric limits are:

lim

x

0

 

cos

x

1

x

=

0

and  

lim

x

0

 

sin

x

x

=

1

If the problem is

cos

x

1

sin

(

x

2

)

, then use

cos

x

1

sin

(

x

2

)

=

cos

x

1

x

2

x

2

sin

(

x

2

)

So the limit we seek is equal to  

lim

x

0

 

cos

x

1

x

2

Looking for a trick that might help, we it may eventually occur to us to try mulltiplying by  

cos

x

+

1

cos

x

+

1

to replace the subtraction that goes to  

0

with an addition that goes to  

2

.

cos

x

1

x

2

cos

x

+

1

cos

x

+

1

=

cos

2

x

1

x

2

(

cos

x

+

1

)

=

sin

2

x

x

2

(

cos

x

+

1

)

=

sin

x

x

sin

x

x

1

cos

x

+

1

The limit as  

x

0

is  

(

1

)

(

1

)

1

1

+

1

=

1

2

Bonus

If the problem is intended to be  

cos

x

1

(

sin

x

)

2

, then use the same trick to get:

cos

x

1

(

sin

x

)

2

=

cos

x

1

(

sin

x

)

2

cos

x

+

1

cos

x

+

1

=

(

sin

x

)

2

(

sin

x

)

2

(

cos

x

+

1

)

=

1

cos

x

+

1

.

Step-by-step explanation:

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