Math, asked by tamizhinikps, 3 months ago

A man donated 1/ 10 of his money to a school , 1/6 of the remaining to a church and the remaining money distributed equally among his three children. If each child gets Rs 50,000 , how much money did the man originally have?​

Answers

Answered by rajveerchauhan4yt
2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:Let the money the man originally have be x

He donates 1/10 to a school

1/10 × x = x/10

Remaining money = x - x/10

= 9x/10

He donates 1/6 to a church from the remaining money,

1/6 × 9x/10 = 3x/20

Remaining money = 9x/10 - 3x/20

= 12x/20

= 3x/4

the remaining money he distributed equally among his three children

= 3(x/4)

So,each child gets x/4 amount.

According to the question,

If each child gets 50000 ,

x/4 = 50000

x = 200000

So the amount of money which the man originally have is 2,00,000.

Answered by Arshdeep505
11

Answer:

 \huge\fcolorbox{blue}{cyan}{Question}

A man donated 1/ 10 of his money to a school , 1/6 of the remaining to a church and the remaining money distributed equally among his three children. If each child gets Rs 50,000 , how much money did the man originally have?

\huge\fcolorbox{green}{yellow}{Answer}

•Let the money of a man be 1

•Money donated to a school =1/10

•Remaining money =1−(1/10)

=9/10

•Money donated to a church =1/6 of 9/10

=3/20

•Hence, remaining money =(9/10)−(3/20)

=(18−3)/20

=15/20

•A man divides equally to his three children

•Hence,

Share of each child =(15/20)÷3

=(15/20)×(1/3)

=1/4

•Here, each child gets Rs.50000

Therefore, his total money =Rs.50000×(4/1)

=Rs.200000.

Hope it helps

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