Physics, asked by reetika764, 1 year ago


- A particle is undergoing SHM, when its kinetic
energy is equal to potential energy, the velocity of
particle is (w - angular frequency, A - amplitude
and potential energy at mean position is zero)

Answers

Answered by aniiiibhardwaj
22

1/2mv^2 = 1/2kx^2

v =√A^2 - x^2

 \frac{1}{2} m( {w}^{2} ( {a}^{2}  -  {x}^{2} ))  =  \frac{1}{2} k {x}^{2}

solve for x

Answered by netta00
132

Answer:

V=\dfrac{\omega A}{\sqrt 2}}

Explanation:

 We know that

Velocity of particle in SHM given as

V=\omega \sqrt{A^2-x^2}

Kinetic energy of particle given as

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}mV^2

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}m\times \omega^2 (A^2-x^2)

Potential energy given as

PE=\dfrac{1}{2}kx^2

Given that

KE= PE

\dfrac{1}{2}m\times \omega^2 (A^2-x^2)=\dfrac{1}{2}kx^2

m\times \omega^2 (A^2-x^2)=kx^2

We know that

ω² m = k

So

(A^2-x^2)=x^2

x=\dfrac{A}{\sqrt 2}

Now

V=\omega \sqrt{A^2-x^2}

V=\omega \sqrt{A^2-\dfrac{A^2}{2}}

V=\omega \sqrt{\dfrac{A^2}{2}}

V=\dfrac{\omega A}{\sqrt 2}}

This is the velocity of particle when  when its kinetic  energy is equal to potential energy.

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