Physics, asked by appikondaagastya, 9 months ago

A particle (q m) moves under the action of electric field bar(E)=(A-Bx)hat i where A and B are positive constant.If velocity of particle at x=0 is zero then maximum velocity attained by particle is

Answers

Answered by saiabhiram99
5

Answer:

guavugddwfigwgidhohfwighoohihohhoecjjodejohdeoehdohhfeorfhohojheiefeojhhiefohojojcdcdojbdibhdcijhvschkkhvsckkbdcbkbdckkhcdcdkhkhbcdckbdkbcddckncnldvjnfnvnlvdnnlvdvn dlnkvdkbdckbncf kfcn mdc. m

Answered by sonuvuce
0

The maximum velocity attained by the particle is

\boxed{A\sqrt{\frac{q}{Bm}}}

Explanation:

Given

Electric Field

\vec E=(A-Bx)\hat i

Charge of the particle is q and mass is m

The force acting on the particles

\vec F=q\vec E

\implies \vec F=q(A-Bx)\hat i

Therefore, acceleration of the particle

\vec a=\frac{\vec F}{m}

\implies \vec a=\frac{q(A-Bx)}{m}\hat i

The particle will have velocity in the x direction only

We know that

a=v\frac{dv}{dx}

\implies v\frac{dv}{dx}=\frac{q(A-Bx)}{m}

\implies vdv=\frac{q(A-Bx)}{m}dx

\implies mvdv=q(A-Bx)dx

\implies m\int_0^vvdv=q\int_0^x(A-Bx)dx

\implies m\frac{v^2}{2}\Bigr|_0^v=q(Ax-B\frac{x^2}{2})\Bigr|_0^x

\implies \frac{mv^2}{2}=q(Ax-\frac{Bx^2}{2})

\implies \frac{mv^2}{2}=-q\frac{B}{2}(x^2-\frac{2A}{B}x)

\implies \frac{mv^2}{2}=-q\frac{B}{2}(x^2-\frac{2A}{B}x+(\frac{A}{B})^2-(\frac{A}{B})^2)

\implies \frac{mv^2}{2}=-q\frac{B}{2}(x-\frac{A}{B})^2+q\frac{B}{2}\frac{A^2}{B^2}

Maximum velocity will be when

x=\frac{A}{B}

The maximum velocity is

v_{max}^2=\frac{1}{m}(\frac{qA^2}{B})

\implies v_{max}=A\sqrt{\frac{q}{Bm}}

Hope this answer is helpful.

Know More:

Q: A particle of specific charge (q/m) is projected from the origin of coordinates with initial velocity [ui – vj]. uniform electric magnetic fields exist in the region along the +y direction, of magnitude e and  b.the particle will definitely return to the origin once if:

Click Here: https://brainly.in/question/5364902

Similar questions