A person has enough money to buy 75 toys worth ₹ 200 each. How many toys can he buy if the price of each toy is reduced by ₹ 50?
Answers
Answer:
PLS MARK AS BRAINLIEST :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x be the number of machines he can buy if a discount of Rs.50 is offered on each machine.
Number of machines 75 x
Price of each machine ( in Rs ) 200 150
Since, Raghu is getting a discount of Rs.50 on each machine, the cost of each machine will get decreased by Rs.50
If the price of a machine is less, he can buy more number of machines.
It is a case of inverse variation.
∴ 75×200=x×150
⇒ x=
150
75×200
⇒ x=
150
15000
⇒ x=100
∴ The number of machines ha can buy is 100.
Answer:
Answer:
100 machines
Step-by-step explanation:
Cost of 1 machine = Rs.200
Cost of 75 machines = 200 \times 75200×75
= 1500015000
Now he gets a discount of Rs. 50 on each machine
So, Cost of 1 machine =Rs.200-Rs.50=Rs.150
No. of machines can be bought by Rs.150 =1
No. of machines can be bought by Re 1 =\frac{1}{150}
150
1
No. of machines can be bought by Rs.15000 =\frac{1}{150} \times 15000
150
1
×15000
=100100
Hence if he gets a discount of Rs. 50 on each machine he can buy 100 machines
Step-by-step explanation:
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