Math, asked by bharathmighty248, 2 months ago

A pipe can fill the tank in 24 hrs, while a leak is at two-third of the height of tank(from bottom) can empty upto that part in 4hrs.If it opens simultaneously and initially the tank is full,then when will be two-third is full?
A.9
B.12
C.8
D.10

Answers

Answered by masthan2755
1

Step-by-step explanation:

option c is answer because 2 3rd is out so in 24 hrs it fills but it leaks only 1 3rd so

24/3=8

Answered by probrainsme104
1

Concept:

The term 'efficiency (mathematical)' because it applies to the realm of basic math may be defined as 'the ability to see a way for solution quickly and with little effort'.

Given:

we are guven the time taken by the pipe to fill the tank is 24hrs while a leak is in \frac{2}{3} of height tank from bottom can empty is 4hrs.

Find:

We have to search out the time when are going to be two-third tank is full.

solution:

Firstly, we are going to find the efficiency of pipe.

\text{efficiency of pipe}=\frac{1}{24}

Time is taken by leaked pipe to empty tank of \frac{1}{3} part is 4 hrs.

Now, we'll find the efficiency of leaked part.

\begin{aligned}\text{efficiency of leaked pipe}&=\frac{\frac{1}{3}}{4}\\ &=\frac{1}{12}\end

Further, we are going to find the combined efficiency of pipe fill the tank and leak within the pipe of part, we get

\begin{aligned}\text{combined efficiency}&=\frac{1}{24}-\frac{1}{12}\\ &=\frac{-}{24}\end

Here, the negative sign shows leak in pipe.

Time required by both pipes to empty \frac{1}{3}th of a tank is

\begin{aligned}\frac{\frac{1}{3}}{\frac{1}{24}}&=\frac{1}{3}\times \frac{24}{}\\ &=8\end

Hence, the time taken to fill two-third tank is 8hrs. So, option (c) is correct.

3SPJ3

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