Math, asked by janatd, 1 year ago

a power x is equal to b b power Y is equal to C and C power Z is equal to a prove that x y z is equal to 1

Answers

Answered by goodstudent
74
given
[tex] a^{x} = b [/tex]--(i)
 b^{y}=c --(ii)
[tex] c^{z}=a [/tex]--(iii)
use(iii)in(i)
 c^{zx}=b ---(iv)
use(ii)in(iv)
[tex] b^{xyz} =b [/tex]
here bases are equal hence powers are also equal
hence xyz=1

Answered by Aryan257553
8

Answer:

given

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)c^{zx}=bczx=b ---(iv)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)c^{zx}=bczx=b ---(iv)use(ii)in(iv)

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)c^{zx}=bczx=b ---(iv)use(ii)in(iv)b^{xyz} =bbxyz=b

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)c^{zx}=bczx=b ---(iv)use(ii)in(iv)b^{xyz} =bbxyz=bhere bases are equal hence powers are also equal

givena^{x} = bax=b --(i)b^{y}=cby=c --(ii)c^{z}=acz=a --(iii)use(iii)in(i)c^{zx}=bczx=b ---(iv)use(ii)in(iv)b^{xyz} =bbxyz=bhere bases are equal hence powers are also equalhence xyz=1

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