Math, asked by Yuvraj4232, 11 months ago

(a) Ram sold two pens Rs. 40 each. He sold one at a loss of Rs. 15%. and other at a gain of 15%. Find his total loss or gain percent. (b) In how many years will a sum of money double itself at 15% per year simple interest? (c) A 10 Rs. Face value share of a company is quoted at Rs. 40 in the market. How much does Mohan pay to purchase 600 shares of this company, if the brokerage 17%?

Answers

Answered by amitnrw
1

Answer:

2.25 % Loss

6 Years 8 Months

Rs 28080

Step-by-step explanation:

Let say Cost price of pen1 = C1

Sold at loss of 15 % => Loss = 0.15C1

Selling Price = 0.85C1 = 40

=> C1 = 40/0.85  = 800/17

Let say Cost price of pen2 = C2

Sold at gaib of 15 % => Gain = 0.15C2

Selling Price = 1.15C2 = 40

=> C1 = 40/1.15  = 800/23

Total Cost Price = 800/17 + 800/23  = 800 * 40 /( 17 * 23)

Total Selling Price = 80

Loss = 800 * 40 /( 17 * 23)  - 80    =  80 (400 - 23*17) /(23  * 17)

= 80 * 9 / (23 * 17)

Loss % =   100 * (80 * 9 / (23 * 17)) / (800 * 40 /( 17 * 23) )

= 9/4 %

= 2.25 %

sum of money double itself

=> Simple interest = Principle

SI = P * R * T /100

=> P = P * 15 * T /100

=> T = 100/15

=> T = 20/3

6 Years 8 Months

600 Shares

Market Value = rs 40 each share

Value of 600 Shares = 600 * 40 = Rs 24000

Brokerage = (17/100) * 24000 = 4080 Rs

Amount Paid = 24000 + 4080 = Rs 28080

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