Math, asked by vashtiwari05181111, 1 month ago

a worker paid ₹1620.5 0 for 5 days what should he be paid for 40 days​

Answers

Answered by kushwahakashish247
2

12964

Step-by-step explanation:

1620.5*40/5

12964

hope can help

Answered by kanika567jain
0

Answer:

RS 12964 THIS IS CORRECT ANSWER

Step-by-step explanation:

AMOUNT OF MONEY WORKER PAID FOR 5 DAYS

=1620.50

AMOUNT OF MONEY WORKER PAID FOR 1 DAY =1620.50/5= 324.1

AMOUNT OF MONEY WORKER PAID FOR 40 DAY =324.1*40=12964 ANS =RS12964

Similar questions