Question

A={x:xbelongs to natural numbers and (x-1)(x-2)=0}is finite set. Why? ​

Answer 1

Answer:

Since the given expression has only 2 solutions, this is a finite set.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here,

( x - 1 )( x - 2 ) = 0

= > ( x - 1 )( x - 2 ) = 0

Using zero product rule. Since the product of x - 1 and x - 2 is 0, one of them must be 0.

= > x - 1 = 0 or x - 2 = 0

= > x = 1 or x = 2

Thus,

Solution set is { 1 , 2 }.

It means only two numbers can satisfy this situation and that's why this is a finite set.

Answer 2

$</p><p>\tt{\huge{\purple{Hello!!! }}}$

$</p><p>\tt{\red{Question \: - }}$

A={x:xbelongs to natural numbers and (x-1)(x-2)=0} is a finite set. Why?

$</p><p>\tt{\orange{Step-By-Step-Explaination \: - }}$

Given : X € N

(X-1)(X-2) = 0

This is valid only when X = 1 or 2.

Hence, the solution set has 2 values only, which is finite.

So A € a finite set.