Physics, asked by evangelinejijo123, 7 months ago

according to ohms law V~I

why not I~V

Answers

Answered by ashutosh97424

0

Answer:

because it will give coductance

Answered by pinkybansal1101

2

Answer:

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ACCORDING TO OHM'S LAW

$I ∝ V$

Or

$\frac{v}{i} = constant$

We put the content equal to R, the resistence of conductor , Then

$V = IR$

Before We arrive to the main point please note

RESISTANCE =The resistance of a conductor is numerically equal to the potential difference applied across its ends for the flow of unit current through it

CONDUCTANCE =The reciprocal of resistance is called conductance

$conductance \: = \frac{i}{v}$

_________________

Thus according to OHM's law resistance is equal to V/I

and hence we use the graph of V-I and not I-V because I-V slope would represent conductance.

Plz see the above attachments .

Th graph 2 represents Ohms law.

________________

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