Math, asked by MARYVENNELA4211, 5 months ago

After spending 60% of his money a man has rupees 8000 how much money did he have before

Answers

Answered by hannahyap526
4

Answer:

20000 rupee

Step-by-step explanation:

100%-60%=40%

60%is spend so there are only 40% of his money left

Money left=8000

8000= the 40 % of the money left

8000÷40=200

1% equal to 200 rupee

Money have before =100%

200*100=20000

The man have 20000 rupee before he spend 60% of his money

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