Math, asked by jack5563, 1 year ago

(am2+bm2

-bn2

-an2

) ÷ (m+n)​

Answers

Answered by mranjana999
8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it will help you.....

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Answered by Dhruv4886
2

On dividing (am² + bm² - bn² - an²) by (m+n)​ we get (m - n)(a + b)  

Given:

(am² + bm² - bn² - an²) ÷ (m+n)​

Solution:

Here we have (am² + bm² - bn² - an²) ÷ (m+n)​  

Where (am² + bm² - bn² - an²) can be simplified as follows

=> (am² + bm² - bn² - an²)    

=> (am² - an²+ bm² - bn²)    

=> a(m² - n²) + b(m² - n²)          

=> (m² - n²)(a + b)

Using algebraic identity (a² - b²) = (a + b)(a - b)  

=>  (m² - n²) = (m + n)(m - n)

=> (m² - n²)(a + b)

=> (m + n)(m - n)(a + b)

Hence, (am² + bm² - bn² - an²) ÷ (m+n)​  

= (m + n)(m - n)(a + b) ÷ (m+n)​  

= (m + n)(m - n)(a + b) / (m+n)​  

= (m - n)(a + b)  

Therefore,

On dividing (am² + bm² - bn² - an²) by (m+n)​ we get (m - n)(a + b)  

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