Physics, asked by adithyan101o, 8 months ago

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Answered by TheMoonlìghtPhoenix
1

Explanation:

First we can see that the upper resistances of 1 ohm are in series.

Adding them we get 3 ohm.

Now, coming downwards , we have 2 ohm .

We will add it and will get 6 ohm.

Now, we see that all are in parallel .

So, we will add IT as

 \frac{1}{3}  +  \frac{1}{2}  +  \frac{1}{6}

So, we get the total resistance as 1 ohm.

Now the outer resistance are of 1 ohm.

Adding altogether ie 1+1+1 ohm we get the answer as

3 ohm.

Answered by sidggoenka
1

Explanation:

Resistance = V/I

RESISTANCE DEFC IS IN SERIES

THEREFORE, R(EQUIVALENT) = R1 + R2+ R3

R(EQUIVALENT)= DE + EF + FC = 1+1+1 = 3 OHMS

RESISTANCE DGHC IS ALSO IN SERIES.

THEREFORE, R(EQUIVALENT) = DG + GH + HC

= 2+2+2 = 6 OHMS

NOW RESISTANCE DEFC, DC, DGHC IS IN PARALLEL, SO,

1/ R(EQUIVALENT) = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

= 1/ R(EQUIVALENT) = 1/DEFC + 1/DC +1/DGHC

= 1/ R(EQUIVALENT) = 1/3+1/2+1/6= 1/1 OHMS

THEREFORE R(EQUIVALENT) WOULD BE 1 OHM

NOW, RESISTANCE AD, EQUIVALENT RESISTANCE BETWEEN DC AND CB ARE IN SERIES.

THEREFORE, RESISTANCE BETWEEN A TO B =

1+1+1 = 3 OHMS

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