Physics, asked by Anonymous, 11 months ago

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Answered by QGP
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We are given a relation between acceleration (f) and time (t):


\boxed{f=f_{\circ}\left( 1- \frac{t}{T} \right)} \quad ---(1)

f_{\circ} and T are given as constants. 



The question asks about the particle's velocity when f=0. So we must find some equation of velocity. Here it is the easiest to find an equation of velocity as a function of time.

The particle is moving along X-axis. So its velocity is being denoted as v_x


Now, we know that acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. In Calculus terms, acceleration is the derivative of velocity with respect to time.



We write:

\displaystyle f = \frac{dv_x}{dt} \\ \\ \\ \implies dv_x = f \, dt \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = \int f \, dt \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = \int f_{\circ} \left( 1-\frac{t}{T} \right) \, dt \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ} \, t - \frac{f_{\circ}}{T} \times \frac{t^2}{2} + c \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ}t - \frac{f_{\circ}t^2}{2T}+c \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ}t \left( 1 - \frac{t}{2T} \right) +c

c is the constant of integration. We need to find its value. 


In the question, we are given that The particle has zero velocity at t = 0


So we can put v_x=0 and t=0 to find c.


\displaystyle v_x = f_{\circ}t \left( 1 - \frac{t}{2T} \right) +c \\ \\ \\ \implies 0 = f_{\circ} \times 0 \times \left( 1-\frac{t}{2T} \right) +c \\ \\ \\ \implies 0 = 0 + c \\ \\ \\ \implies \bold{c = 0}


So, our equation of velocity becomes:


\displaystyle \boxed{\bold{v_x = f_{\circ}t \left( 1 - \frac{t}{2T} \right)}}



Now, we have to find the velocity when f = 0.


But we have velocity as a function of t, and not f. So, we use equation (1).


f = f_{\circ} \left(1-\frac{t}{T} \right) \\ \\ \\ \text{Put }f=0 \\ \\ \\ \implies 0 = f_{\circ} \left( 1-\frac{t}{T} \right) \\ \\ \\ \implies 1-\frac{t}{T}=0 \\ \\ \\ \implies \frac{t}{T}=1 \\ \\ \\ \implies \bold{t = T}


Thus, we know that acceleration f becomes zero at time t = T. We can put this value of t in our equation to find velocity.


\displaystyle v_x = f_{\circ}t \left( 1 - \frac{t}{2T} \right) \\ \\ \\ \text{Put }t=T \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ}T \left( 1-\frac{T}{2T} \right) \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ}T \left( 1-\frac{1}{2} \right) \\ \\ \\ \implies v_x = f_{\circ}T \times \frac{1}{2} \\ \\ \\ \implies \boxed{\bold{v_x=\frac{1}{2}f_{\circ}T}}


Thus, when f = 0, the velocity of the particle is \frac{1}{2}f_{\circ}T



So, The Answer is Option (1)


Anonymous: Thanks!
QGP: :)
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