Math, asked by 3118siyasharma, 11 months ago

answer this question plz​

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Answered by mayankjoshi640
0

Step-by-step explanation:

Its answer is option C because every equation has infinite solutions

Answered by Anonymous
1

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\implies optionC\\

Because, these eq. will satisfy in the given relation

\dfrac{a1}{a2}=\dfrac{b1}{b2}=\dfrac{c1}{c2}

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