Math, asked by aadi66, 1 year ago

any body can prove 1=2 and this is a right question so prove

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
8
hey friend here is the answer !!!!

let ,

a=b

=>a²=ab (multiply both sides by a )

=>a²-b²= ab-b² (subtracting b² both sides )

=> (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b). (factor both sides)

=> (a+b)=b. (divide both sides by a-b )

=> a+a = a (substitute a for b)

=> 2a = a
=> 2=1. proved !!!

hope this helps !!
be happy and stay blessed my friend !!!

Anonymous: * a + b = b
Anonymous: So basically, a = b - b = 0
Anonymous: that is not al
Anonymous: (a+b)=b
Anonymous: now by assuming b=a and do ahead
Anonymous: u got the answer
Anonymous: (^_^) tq
Answered by MarkAsBrainliest
7
Answer :

1)

Let us assume,

x = 1

Now, multiplying both sides by x, we get

x² = x

Again, subtracting 1 from both sides, we get

x² - 1 = x - 1

⇒ (x + 1)(x - 1) = (x - 1)

⇒ x + 1 = 1

⇒ 1 + 1 = 1 [∵ x = 1]

⇒ 2 = 1

⇒ 1 = 2 [Proved]

WHERE DID U DO WRONG?
~ It is a certain that x = 1 ⇒ x - 1 = 0 but we ignored it while calculating.

Another method.

Let us take,

0 = 0

⇒ 1 - 1 = 1 - 1

⇒ 1.1 - 1.1 = 1² - 1²

⇒ 1(1 - 1) = (1 + 1)(1 - 1)

⇒ 1 = 1 + 1

⇒ 1 = 2 [Proved]

WHERE DID WE DO WRONG?
~ Although 1 - 1 = 0 and 0/0 is indeterminate form but we ignored it on purpose.

#MarkAsBrainliest
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