Math, asked by AshishRahul, 9 months ago

Anyone give me full solution​

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Answered by riya18029
2

Answer:

Let us assume our dividend function to be f(x) and divisor function as g(x).

For the above mentioned question

f(x)= x¹°°

g(x)= x+1

Now we equate g(x)=0 and find its roots. In our case

x+1=0 => x=-1 is a root.

Putting the value of x in f(x) we get

f(-1)= (-1)¹°°

f(-1)= 1

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