Math, asked by hs539796, 1 month ago

application of mean value theorem

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Answered by abhaskumarsingh
0

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

The Mean Value Theorem allows us to conclude that the converse is also true. In particular, if f′(x)=0 for all x in some interval I, then f(x) is constant over that interval. ... Let f be differentiable over an interval I. If f′(x)=0 for all x∈I, then f(x)= constant for all x∈I.

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