application of mean value theorem
Answers
Answered by
0
Answer:
see below
Step-by-step explanation:
The Mean Value Theorem allows us to conclude that the converse is also true. In particular, if f′(x)=0 for all x in some interval I, then f(x) is constant over that interval. ... Let f be differentiable over an interval I. If f′(x)=0 for all x∈I, then f(x)= constant for all x∈I.
Similar questions