History, asked by rbhupendrasingh776, 10 months ago

Are all the people who have voting rights really equal?

Answers

Answered by jyotibandhral99
3

Answer:

all the people who votes rights are different

Answered by tejasvimaligi
1

Answer:

the question is, “Do all people who vote in a given voting district have their markings on paper represent the same weighted value?” Yes. That’s the point of voting anonymously. One vote for each person who puts a mark on paper.

Unless the person who marks the paper makes an invalid-according-to-the-rules marking on the paper (eg, voted for too many candidates, did not mark a candidate).

Also, if the voting rights person doesn’t vote, that equality is the same (result-wise) as someone who does not have voting rights.

If the question is, “Are people in one voting district equal in some way to another voting district?” It depends. The ability to vote for candidates in District A doesn’t apply to those voting and votes in District B. That is, District A voters don’t vote for District B candidates and District B voters don’t vote for District A candidates. This may or may not be relevant to the question, but presents an inequality by membership of different sets.

If the question is, “Does the right to vote mean anything about the equality of the person outside of the voting booth?” No, it does not mean anything about equality. It only means that under anonymity, the inequality of public persona is negated by the single vote in the voting booth.

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