Math, asked by jblankenship002, 10 months ago

Are f(x) = x3 - 1 and g(x) = (x + 1)1/3 inverse functions?

Answers

Answered by rushikesh11111111
2

Answer:

yes they are.

Step-by-step explanation:

let f(x)=y then , x = f inverse of y

3x-1=y

x=(y+1)/3

f inverse of y = (y+1)/3

f inverse of x =(x+1)/3

and that is equal to g(x).

hence proved

Answered by soham4net
2

I have given the attachment

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