Question

Aristotalian law of Motion ⤵️ :

" An external force is required to keep a body in motion. "

⚠️This was later proved to be a wrong notation .

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Answer 1

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The simple and sweet answer would be NO. But

let us discuss the reason behind calling Aristotle’s observation a fallacy.

We know that a moving toy car comes to rest. But the actual reason behind it is the presence of the frictional force that the car experiences due to its contact with the floor. It is friction that opposes its motion and eventually brings it to rest. So now when you apply the force in the direction of the motion of the car, you basically overcome or counter the frictional force in order to set the car into motion again.

It is interesting to note that, had there not been any frictional force, there was no force required to keep the car moving. This implies that in the absence of an external opposing force, a body in motion will be in uniform motion forever. Aristotle failed to understand this and set his argument on the basis of the practical experiences only. This is why it is called Aristotle’s fallacy.

However, in the natural world, opposing forces are always present. Hence, we do need an external force to overcome them.

Answer 2

Answer:

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