Physics, asked by celzeusjohncortes, 1 year ago

aristotle and galileo conceptions of motion

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Answered by Anonymous
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Fundamentally, Aristotle differed from Galileleo in that Aristotle was mostly inductive reasoning. Almost all Aristotelian conclusions were not based on nor were they tested against experiments.

Almost all conflicts between what we now call science (I'm with Sagan in believing that science as a discipline truly began with Kepler’s rejection of geocentrism because it did not fit observations) and religion are a result of the ease with which inductive arguments can be internalized and turned into dogma as they flow from basic observations and have no inherent methodology to prove their validity. Once our instruments and observations moved from rather subjective to objective by virtue of consistent recording and finer measurements, the Platonic ideals and Arostotlean conclusions ran counter to the data from the real world.

This is not meant to disparage Aristotle or the system of logic that he championed nor to diminish their importance. It was more the ease with which these conclusions or dogmatized and made moribund by adherents. Much like how Freud's psychoanalysis moved from musings on motivations to being presented as principles and conclusions borne of experiment, which they clearly were not.

MARK BRAINLIEST
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