at a certain rate of simple interest rs 4050 amounts to rs 4576.50 in 2 years. At the same rate of simple interest, how much would rs 1 lakh amount to in 3 years
Answers
Answered by
44
Hi,
Here is the answer to your query:-
Formula used: SI=P×R×T/100
✅P×R×T/100=526.50
✅4050×R×2/100=526.50
✅81×R=526.50
✅R=526.50/81
✅R=6.50%
✔Now,
✅P=1,00,000 R=6.50% T=3years
✅SI=P×R×T/100
✅SI=1,00,000×6.50×3/100
✅SI=19,500
✔Thanks
⭐SHIVAM⭐
Here is the answer to your query:-
Formula used: SI=P×R×T/100
✅P×R×T/100=526.50
✅4050×R×2/100=526.50
✅81×R=526.50
✅R=526.50/81
✅R=6.50%
✔Now,
✅P=1,00,000 R=6.50% T=3years
✅SI=P×R×T/100
✅SI=1,00,000×6.50×3/100
✅SI=19,500
✔Thanks
⭐SHIVAM⭐
areebZAHIR:
576.50 kaise aaya
Answered by
39
Answer:
Heya mate! ! !
Here's your answer
Given,
1st case
P= Rs. 4050
A=Rs. 4576.50
T=2 years
SI = Rs.( 4576.50-4050)
=Rs.526.50
R =SI*100/P*T
Answer is Rs. 6.5%
2nd case
P=Rs.1000000 , R= 6.5,T=3 years
SI =P*R*T/100
Answer is Rs. 19500
If it helps you please mark as best
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