Math, asked by ritisingh1798, 7 months ago

by induction hypothesis the series 1^2+2^2+3^2+.......+p^2 can be proved equivalent to what?

Answers

Answered by jeet2544
2

Answer:

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Answered by ushmagaur
0

Answer:

The series 1^2+2^2+3^2+...+p^2 is equivalent to \frac{p(p+1)(2p+1)}{6}.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1 of 3

Consider the series as follows:

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+p^2=\frac{p(p+1)(2p+1)}{6} . . . . . (1)

Basic step: The series (1) is true for p=1.

1^2=\frac{1(1+1)(2(1)+1)}{6}

1=\frac{(2)(3)}{6}

1=1

Step 2 of 3

Induction step: Assume that the series (1) is true for p=k, where k is positive integer.

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+k^2=\frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6} . . . . . (2)

To prove that the series (1) is true for p=k+1, i.e.,

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=\frac{(k+1)(k+2)(2k+3)}{6}

Step 3 of 3

Consider the left-hand side of the series (1) as follows:

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+p^2

Substitute the value k+1 for p as follows:

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=1^2+2^2+3^2+...+k^2+(k+1)^2

Using (2), we get

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=\frac{k(k+1)(2k+1)}{6} +(k+1)^2

Now, simplify as follows:

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=(k+1)\left[\frac{k(2k+1)}{6} +(k+1)\right]

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=(k+1)\left[\frac{k(2k+1)+6(k+1)}{6} \right]

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=(k+1)\left[\frac{2k^2+k+6k+6}{6} \right]

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=(k+1)\left[\frac{2k^2+7k+6}{6} \right]

On simplifying, we get

1^2+2^2+3^2+...+(k+1)^2=\frac{(k+1)(k+2)(2k+3)}{6}

Thus, the series (1) is true for p=k+1.

Therefore, the series 1^2+2^2+3^2+...+p^2 is equivalent to \frac{p(p+1)(2p+1)}{6}.

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