English, asked by arjun005071627, 6 months ago

By mean of an example show "is every interger divided by itself equal to 1"
answer fast guys please..

Answers

Answered by biswasprapti18

0

Explanation:

it's like if u divide 2/2 it will be 1

or

-2/-2 it will be also 1

that's why every integer divided by itself is equal to 1

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 3 months ago

αnswer itt!! plss brain list...

Math, 3 months ago

(a) Multiply −3 /11 by −22 /7 (b) Divide: −5/ 6 ÷ 3...

Social Sciences, 3 months ago

Socially and politically, a landed aristocracy was the dominant class on the continent. The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage. This powerful aristocracy...

English, 6 months ago

what do you understand by intra_state trade...

Math, 6 months ago

find the amount that is left in the students bank account if he had made the following transaction in a month his initial bank balance is rupees 690...

English, 11 months ago

However, it's not the hotels location...

Math, 11 months ago

how to study line graph...

Science, 11 months ago

●Define catenation●...