Sociology, asked by burhan2027, 4 months ago

C. Accomme
E Ans: B
u 112 Who said that no reformation is possible without a renaissance

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Answered by gowthamkommalapati
1

Answer:

First, the Renaissance is a very real period in history, which we can bracket between the 1330s (early date) or the 1420 (later date) in Florence and 1687, the triumph of scientific rationalism in Newton’s Principia. It is a period defined largely in terms of ideas more than events. There are three other important historical movements that overlap with it; the age of European discovery, beginning in 1492 with Columbus; the rise of scientific rationalism, from the first half of the 16th century with Paracelsus and, in particular, the publication of Copernicus’ De Revolutionibus; and the Protestant Reformation, with antecedents in the 14th century but usually dated to the beginning of the 16th century with Luther and Calvin.

Would the Protestant Reformation have occurred without the Renaissance? Most probably, because the forces that brought it about had very little to do with the central concerns of the Renaissance, which were overwhelmingly focused on the revival of pagan antiquity. The Reformation started north of the alps; the Renaissance was initially a movement in Italy, south of the Alps.

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Answered by clothparray
0

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Explanation:

Accommodation

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