can 1 / log a to the base x become log x to the base a ....... plzz tell i will mark as the brainliest if you tell correctly
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By the change of base formula for logarithms, we can write logᵪa as ln(a)/ln(x). Now this is just an application of chain rule, with ln(a)/x as the outer function. So the derivative is -ln(a)/((ln(x))²)·(1/x).
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hope it was helpful please make me brainliest
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no, it's not correct.....
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