Physics, asked by preetamhalder2000, 5 hours ago

can anyone answer this question with full procedure explanation?​

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Answered by adarshkumar102087
0

Answer:

this is a problem with the affected area of the affected area of

Answered by prajwal124421
1

Explanation:

firstly

upward force is equal to downward force

so T1+T2 = 100N

secondly

taking point s1 as pivot

the torque

T2 *L/2 = Mg*L/2 (taking centre of mass to be at S2)

so

T2=Mg= 100N

so T1=0

in other words

since the body is not revolving T1 must be zero

as otherwise the body will move clockwise

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