Math, asked by poojakumaresh26, 1 year ago

can anyone please explain the steps of the answer ....

Ques: if m times the mth term of an AP is equal to n times the nth term show that (m+n)th term of the AP is zero

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Answered by pksharma1020mtp2zmzm
1
here is an attachment
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poojakumaresh26: in the 6 th step is it (m+n)(m-n) or (am+n)(m-n)?!
poojakumaresh26: please let me know?!
Answered by Mritun
1
\bold{\boxed{Hoi!}}☺️

•We simplified the {m}^{th} and {n}^{th} term of the AP and then make an eqn. saying {m}^{th}-{n}^{th}=0.

•simplifying the equation, we take a(m-n) as common and d on the other side.

• Again we simplified and grouped the {.....}d part.

•Now, we take out the (m-n) term common from both the equation and get a+(m+n-1)d that is equal to term m+n.

\textbf{Hope u understand!}

\bold{\underline{Thanks!}}☺️

poojakumaresh26: Yes..
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