Accountancy, asked by impracticallloe, 10 months ago

Can someone solve the 14th Question, ASAP.

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Answers

Answered by yasaswi797
1

Answer:yes

Explanation:

2010 value of machinery:

30000+20000=50000₹

Less depreciation = 50000*10%= 50000

Closing balance of machinery for 2010= 50000-5000=45000₹

2011 value of machinery:

45000₹+10000₹=55000

Less depreciation= 5500

Closing balance of machinery for year ended 2011= 55000-5500= 49500₹

2012 value of machinery:

16200₹+ 8100₹ + 14580₹ = 38880₹

(18000-(18000*10/100))+(9000-(9000*10/100))+(24300*1/3=8100₹ sold, So machinery left is 16200₹ and subtract depreciation from this) is the value of machinery as on 1st jan 2013.

To prepare a machinery account, use debit column for machinery and subtract depreciation from credit column. Then in the relevant year Carry it down till 2013.

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