Can someone solve the 14th Question, ASAP.
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Answer:yes
Explanation:
2010 value of machinery:
30000+20000=50000₹
Less depreciation = 50000*10%= 50000
Closing balance of machinery for 2010= 50000-5000=45000₹
2011 value of machinery:
45000₹+10000₹=55000
Less depreciation= 5500
Closing balance of machinery for year ended 2011= 55000-5500= 49500₹
2012 value of machinery:
16200₹+ 8100₹ + 14580₹ = 38880₹
(18000-(18000*10/100))+(9000-(9000*10/100))+(24300*1/3=8100₹ sold, So machinery left is 16200₹ and subtract depreciation from this) is the value of machinery as on 1st jan 2013.
To prepare a machinery account, use debit column for machinery and subtract depreciation from credit column. Then in the relevant year Carry it down till 2013.
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