Math, asked by manoj5636, 4 months ago

Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem can be reduced to Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem. This is true or false​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
3

Answer:

Answer:

1. Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem can be reduced to Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem. Hence, if g(x) = x, then CMV reduces to LMV.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answered by Anonymous
0

True.

  • Cauchy's mean value theorem can be reduced to Lagrange's mean value theorem.
  • Basically, Cauchy's mean value theorem is the general form of Lagrange's mean value theorem.
  • For this reduction, it should obey a condition given by g(x) = x.
  • These two theorems are called mean value theorem because when the given function of a given area is differentiable and continuous at all the points, we get the mean value or average value of the same.

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