Math, asked by pebamyaiphabi08, 1 month ago

check can we say that (48)÷8=48÷-(8)​

Answers

Answered by tapanadhikaribefi
1

No,as one term is positive and other is negative.

So we can't say the above to be equal.

this is the correct answer.

Answered by aWitSu
1

Answer:

No its false

Proof:

\frac{\left(48\right)}{8}=\frac{48}{-\left(8\right)}

\frac{48}{8}  = 6

\frac{48}{-\left(8\right)} = -6

6 \neq -6

False

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