Social Sciences, asked by shreejaabuddy6580, 10 months ago

Compare the Arabic and ottaman empire

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Answered by aajityadav090
1

Answer:

l am very sorry because I anmin class 2

Answered by Fathum321
0

Answer:

The Ottoman Empire had exercised formal sovereignty over the lands of Arabia since the early 16th century. For much of that time it had ruled with a comparatively light touch, garrisoning key trading ports and maintaining an official presence in the Islamic holy cities of Mecca and Medina, but otherwise leaving the region and its nomadic tribal clans to their own devices.

By comparison, the rural Arab populations of Syria, Palestine, Mesopotamia (Iraq) and Egypt were much more settled than their counterparts in Arabia and were subject to direct control by the Ottoman imperial administration. The inhabitants of these regions largely accepted this arrangement: Arab (Sunni) Muslims faced little, if any, discrimination for most of the empire’s history and in fact came to dominate the local Ottoman imperial administration.

Through these different approaches the Ottoman Turks maintained the loyalty of their diverse Muslim Arab subjects.

But as the Ottoman Empire entered the First World War in 1914 this loyalty could no longer be taken for granted, for two reasons. The first was the growth of a nascent Arab nationalism that drew inspiration from 19th-century Western ideas. Some Arabs looked to the nationalist movements of the Slavic (and mostly Christian) minorities of the Ottoman Balkan territories, which had, by the end of 1912, all won their independence. This Arab nationalism was largely fostered by educated urban elites – intellectuals, civil servants and former or serving officers in the Ottoman Army – living in great Arab cities like Damascus and Baghdad. A number of secret societies were formed, although none of these succeeded in spreading their ideas to the wider Arab population before the outbreak of the First World War.

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