Math, asked by choudharygudiya333, 1 month ago

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Answered by xxsanshkiritixx
8

It's the same as 62–√62, and if that's a rational number (call it qq) then q6=2–√q6=2, which we already know to be irrational.Should there be any doubt about this; if qq is rational, it can be expressed as a fraction q=mnq=mn with m,nm,n both integers and n≠0n≠0. Then q6=m6nq6=m6n, where m,6nm,6n are integers, and 6n≠06n≠0. This is using the early-school notion in which “fractions”

Answered by preetkumardujran85
3

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