Math, asked by madhuri1726, 9 months ago

cos 20 cos 40 cos 60 cos 80 = 1/16​

Answers

Answered by lucky622995
8

Answer:

Hii

Step-by-step explanation:

L.H.S.

=(cos20°.cos40°)cos60°.cos80°

=1/2[cos(20° + 40°) + cos(20° – 40°)]×1/2×cos80°

=1/4[cos60° + cos(-20°)]cos80°

=1/4[cos60°cos80° + cos20°cos80°]

=1/4[1/2cos80° + 1/2{cos(20° + 80°) + cos(20° – 80°)}]

=1/8[cos80° + {cos100° + cos(-60°)}]

=1/8[cos80° + cos100° + cos60°]

=1/8[cos80° +cos(180° – 80°) +cos60°]

=1/8[cos80° – cos80° + cos60°]

=1/8 ×cos60°

=1/8 × 1/2

=1/16 = R.H.S

L.H.S = R.H.S = 1/16 Hence proved

Answered by Anonymous
7

{\bold{\underline{\boxed{Solution}}}}

Given : cos20 cos40 cos60 cos80= \large\tt\dfrac{1}{2}

Taking L.H.S

cos20 cos40 cos60 cos80

= cos60 (cos20 cos40)cos80

Multiplying and Divide by 2

= \large\tt\dfrac{1}{2}\times\large\tt\dfrac{1}{2} (2 cos20 cos40)cos80

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{4} [cos(40+20)+cos(40−20)cos80]

[As 2cosA cosB = cos(A+B)+cos(A−B)]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{4}[(cos60+cos20)cos80]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{4}(12+cos20)cos80]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{4}[12cos80+cos80 cos20]

Again Multiplying and Divide by 2 we get

= \large\tt\dfrac{1}{4}\times\large\tt\dfrac{1}{2}[cos80+cos(80+20)+cos(80−20)]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{8}[cos80+cos(80+20)+cos(80−20)]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{8}[cos80+cos100+cos60]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{8}[cos80+cos(180−80)+cos60]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{8}[cos80−cos80+cos60]

=\large\tt\dfrac{1}{8} × cos60

\longrightarrow \large\tt\dfrac{1}{8}\times\large\tt\dfrac{1}{2} = \large\tt\dfrac{1}{16} = R.H.S

Hence Verified.

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