Math, asked by Nijaar06, 6 months ago

cos(log 1 to the base 10)​

Answers

Answered by shreyakrsingh2000
1

Answer:

what's a question I am not understand this question

Answered by abhi569
0

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let log1(to the base 10) = x,

log1(to the base 10) = x implies 10^x = 1,

=> 10^x = 1

=> 10^x = 10^0

=> x = 0

Therefore,

=> cos(log 1 to the base 10)

=> cos(x)

=> cos(0), note that 0 is not in degree, but cos(0) = cos(0°)

=> 1

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