Math, asked by palakthakur178, 1 month ago

cot^(-x) = π-cot^x
prove it...​

Answers

Answered by bipulpandit2006
1

Answer:

hope  this helps you

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is “Why  cot−1(−x)=π−cot−1(x)  and not  −cot−1(x) ?”

Let  cot−1(x)=y.  

⇒coty=x.  

⇒cot(π−y)=−coty=−x.  

⇒cot−1(−x)=π−y.  

⇒cot−1(−x)=π−cot−1(x).

Similar questions