cot^(-x) = π-cot^x
prove it...
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hope this helps you
Step-by-step explanation:
The question is “Why cot−1(−x)=π−cot−1(x) and not −cot−1(x) ?”
Let cot−1(x)=y.
⇒coty=x.
⇒cot(π−y)=−coty=−x.
⇒cot−1(−x)=π−y.
⇒cot−1(−x)=π−cot−1(x).
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