Psychology, asked by pavithravasudevan199, 7 days ago

course
°A 47-year-old man with a long history of schizoaffective
disorder is accompanied to the clinic by his wife After a
difficult
requiring
several psychiatric
hospitalizations and
poor response
to multiple
medications, his condition has been relatively stable for
the past3years on high doses of lithium and risperidone
Efforts to lower his dose of risperidone resulted in
worsening psychotic symptoms and his dose was
subsequently increased. The patient's wife states that his
symptoms are remarkably well managed with the current
medications, but they are both concerned about some
new abnormal movements that he has begun to make. He
has no other medical problems and takes no other
medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit
drugs Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min
and respirations are 12/min. Lithium level is 1.2 mEgle
(range 0.8-1.2) During examination the patient repeatedly
taps his foot, protrudes his tongue, and smacks his lips.
The rest of the examination shows no abnormalities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of
action?​

Answers

Answered by chandu1029
0

Answer:

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