Question

d/dx(sin⁻¹x+cos⁻¹x)=​

Answer 1

Explanation:

= o

because

sin-1×+ cos-1×=pi/2

Answer 2

Here, if x is given a legal domain for the Function to be valid.

So,

f(x) = sin^-1 x + cos^-1 x = π/2 .....(from properties of Inverse Trigonometry)

So,

f'(x) = d(π/2)/dx = 0