Accountancy, asked by ganeshgani71686, 5 months ago

depreciation is basis of apportionment

Answers

Answered by StrangeStark
30

Answer:

ᴍᴀᴄʜɪɴᴇ ᴅᴇᴘʀᴇᴄɪᴀᴛɪᴏɴ ɪs ᴀᴘᴘᴏʀᴛɪᴏɴᴇᴅ ᴛᴏ ᴀʟʟ ᴅᴇᴘᴀʀᴛᴍᴇɴᴛs ᴏɴ ᴛʜᴇ ʙᴀsɪs ᴏғ ᴍᴀᴄʜɪɴᴇ ᴠᴀʟᴜᴇ. ɪɴᴅɪʀᴇᴄᴛ ʟᴀʙᴏᴜʀ ᴄᴏsᴛs ᴀʀᴇ ᴀʟʟᴏᴄᴀᴛᴇᴅ ᴅɪʀᴇᴄᴛʟʏ ᴛᴏ ᴀʟʟ ᴅᴇᴘᴀʀᴛᴍᴇɴᴛs ʙᴀsᴇᴅ ᴏɴ ᴛʜᴇ ɪɴᴅɪʀᴇᴄᴛ ʟᴀʙᴏᴜʀ ʙᴜᴅɢᴇᴛ ғᴏʀ ᴇᴀᴄʜ ᴅᴇᴘᴀʀᴛᴍᴇɴᴛ.

Answered by siya125
13

Answer:

hey mate here is your answer

Explanation:

Machine depreciation is apportioned to all departments on the basis of machine value. Indirect labour costs are allocated directly to all departments based on the indirect labour budget for each department.

Quick Reference. The basis used for the apportionment of costs between a number of cost centres when the costs are to be shared between them equitably. This occurs when an overhead cannot be directly assigned to one particular cost centre.

hope it'll helps you

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