Math, asked by priyankadudeja18951, 10 months ago

Derive mean and standard deviation of binomial distribution

Answers

Answered by hamdhanttku755
3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean and Variance of Binomial Random Variables

The probability function for a binomial random variable is b(x; n, p) = nxpx(1 − p)n−x

This is the probability of having x successes in a series of n independent trials when the probability of success in any one of the trials is p. If X is a random variable with this probability distribution,

n

E ( X ) = x nx p x ( 1 − p ) n − x

x=0 n

= x

x=0 n

= x=1

n! px(1 − p)n−x x!(n−x)!

n! (x−1)!(n−x)!

px(1 − p)n−x

sincethex=0termvanishes. Lety=x−1andm=n−1. Subbingx=y+1andn=m+1 into the last sum (and using the fact that the limits x = 1 and x = n correspond to y = 0 and y = n − 1 = m, respectively)

m

E(X)= (m+1)! py+1(1−p)m−y

y!(m−y)! y=0

m

= (m + 1)p y=0

m

= np y=0

m! py (1 − p)m−y y!(m−y)!

The binomial theorem says that

(a+b)m =

m! y!(m−y)!

py (1 − p)m−y

m

y!(m−y)!

m! aybm−y

Setting a = p and b = 1 − p

mm

m! y!(m−y)!

y=0

m! y!(m−y)!

py(1−p)m−y = y=0

aybm−y =(a+b)m =(p+1−p)m =1

y=0

⃝c Joel Feldman. 2000. All rights reserved.

1

so that

Similarly, but this time using y = x − 2 and m = n − 2

n

EX(X − 1) = x(x − 1)nxpx(1 − p)n−x

So the variance of X is

x=0 n

= x(x − 1)

x=0 n

= n! (x−2)!(n−x)!

x=2

= n(n − 1)p2

x=2 m

= n(n − 1)p2 y=0

(n−2)! px−2(1 − p)n−x m! py (1 − p)m−y

E(X) = np

n! px(1 − p)n−x x!(n−x)!

px(1 − p)n−x

n

(x−2)!(n−x)!

y!(m−y)!

= n(n − 1)p2p + (1 − p)m

= n(n − 1)p2

E(X2)−E(X)2 =EX(X−1)+E(X)−E(X)2 =n(n−1)p2 +np−(np)2

=

np(1 − p)

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