Social Sciences, asked by npafho3642, 1 year ago

Development for a poor is something compsred to a rich

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Answered by pradeep945
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Many people mark the birth of economics as the publication of Adam Smith's The Wealth of Nations in 1776. Actually, this classic's full title is An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations, and Smith does indeed attempt to explain why some nations achieve wealth and others fail to do so. Yet, in the 241 years since the book's publication, the gap between rich countries and poor countries has grown even larger. Economists are still refining their answer to the original question: Why are some countries rich and others poor, and what can be done about it? 

"Rich" and "Poor"

In common language, the terms "rich" and "poor" are often used in a relative sense: A "poor" person has less income, wealth, goods, or services than a "rich" person. When considering nations, economists often use gross domestic product (GDP) per capita as an indicator of average economic well-being within a country. GDP is the total market value, expressed in dollars, of all final goods and services produced in an economy in a given year. In a sense, a country's GDP is like its yearly income. So, dividing a particular country's GDP by its population is an estimate of how much income, on average, the economy produces per person (per capita) per year. In other words, GDP per capita is a measure of a nation's standard of living. For example, in 2016, GDP per capita was $57,467 in the United States, $42,158 in Canada, $27,539 in South Korea, $8,123 in China, $1,513 in Ghana, and $455 in Liberia (Figure 1).2 

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