English, asked by tulsikasera6189, 1 year ago

Difference between no sooner did and no sooner had

Answers

Answered by DikshaBhoria
17
for eg.
1. No sooner had I closed my eyes, I fell asleep.
2.No sooner did I close my eyes, I fell asleep.
First, note that the correct and complete expression is no sooner ... than. It is not necessary to use a comma to separate the two parts: than provides adequate separation. Your first example should therefore be written like this:

No sooner had I closed my eyes than I fell asleep.

Your first example uses past perfect and past simple, which indicates that one event in the past preceded a second event in the past: in this case, closing eyes took place before falling asleep.

The second example uses past simple for both events, which indicates that both events took place in the past. The no sooner thanconstruct makes the sequence clear.

Both are grammatically correct: use of past perfect is not necessary because the no sooner... thanconstruct defines the order. This NGRAM indicates that both are common, and that the past perfect form is preferred.




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Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

There is a simple difference between no sooner did and no sooner had - when you use had change the sentence into had+3rd form of verb according to tense it is Past perfect tense.

- when you use did change the sentence into did+1st form of verb according to tense it is Past indefinite negative sentence.

Explanation:

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