English, asked by sanfy9, 7 months ago

discuss how leavis compares milton and pope​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Milton wrote Latin as readily as he did English. ... Know very well; it also explains the subtlety of effect which Milton achieved by transfusing Greek or Latin constructions into his English verse.

Answered by BRAINLyMranicks
1

Answer:

Milton's dislodgment, in the past decade, after his two centuries of predominance, was effected with remarkably little fuss. The irresistible argument was, of course, Mr. Eliot's creative achievement; it gave his few critical asides potent, it. is true, ,by context. their finality, and made it unnecessary to elaborate a case. Mr. Middleton Murry also, it. should be remembered, came out against Milton at much the same time. His Problem of Style contains an acute page or two comparing Milton with Shakespeare, and there was a review of Bridges' Milton's Prosody in The Athenceum that. one would like to see reprinted along with a good deal more of Mr. Murry's weekly journalism of that time. But the case remained unelaborated, and now that Mr. Eliot has become academically respectable those who refer to it show commonly that they cannot understand it. And when a writer of Mr. Allen Tate's repute as critic, poet and intellectual1eader, telling us that Milton should be, made' to 'influence poetry once more,' shows that he too doesn't understand, then one may overcome, perhaps, one's shyness of saying the obvious.(

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